Treatment of Unstable Angina Medical Exam MCQ Questions
A 63-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with chest pain that has been ongoing for the past 30 minutes. An ECG shows ST-segment depression in leads V2-V5. What is the first-line treatment for this patient?
a) Aspirin
b) Nitroglycerin
c) Heparin
d) β-blocker
Answer: c) Heparin. This patient has unstable angina, and heparin is the first-line anticoagulant therapy for the management of unstable angina.
A 50-year-old female patient with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents to the emergency department with chest pain that started 3 hours ago. An ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the appropriate treatment for this patient?
a) Aspirin and nitroglycerin
b) Heparin and glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors
c) β-blocker and calcium channel blocker
d) Fibrinolytic therapy
Answer: b) Heparin and glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors. This patient is presenting with an ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), and the appropriate treatment is anticoagulation with heparin and the use of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors to prevent platelet aggregation.
A 68-year-old male patient with a history of coronary artery disease presents to the emergency department with chest pain that has been ongoing for the past 2 hours. An ECG shows no ST-segment changes. What is the appropriate treatment for this patient?
a) Aspirin and nitroglycerin
b) Heparin and glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors
c) β-blocker and calcium channel blocker
d) Observation and monitoring
Answer: a) Aspirin and nitroglycerin. This patient is presenting with unstable angina without ST-segment changes, and the appropriate treatment is aspirin and nitroglycerin to reduce the risk of myocardial infarction.
A 45-year-old male patient with a history of tobacco use and diabetes presents to the emergency department with chest pain that started 1 hour ago. An ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads V1-V4. The patient has no contraindications to fibrinolytic therapy. What is the appropriate treatment for this patient?
a) Aspirin and nitroglycerin
b) Heparin and glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors
c) Fibrinolytic therapy
d) Coronary angiography and percutaneous coronary intervention
Answer: c) Fibrinolytic therapy. This patient is presenting with a STEMI, and fibrinolytic therapy is the appropriate treatment as long as there are no contraindications.
55-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with chest pain that started 30 minutes ago. The pain is described as pressure-like, radiating to the left arm, and associated with sweating and shortness of breath. An ECG shows ST-segment depression in leads V1 to V6. The troponin levels are normal. What is the best treatment for this patient?
A. Aspirin and sublingual nitroglycerin
B. Aspirin and heparin
C. Aspirin, heparin, and glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors
D. Aspirin, heparin, and urgent cardiac catheterization
Answer: C
A 60-year-old female patient with a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia presents with chest pain that started 2 hours ago. The pain is described as squeezing, radiating to the back, and associated with shortness of breath and nausea. An ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. The troponin levels are elevated. What is the best treatment for this patient?
A. Aspirin and sublingual nitroglycerin
B. Aspirin, heparin, and glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors
C. Aspirin, heparin, and urgent cardiac catheterization
D. Thrombolytic therapy
Answer: C
A 45-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department with chest pain that started 1 hour ago. The pain is described as sharp and stabbing, worsened by inspiration, and associated with shortness of breath. An ECG shows no ST-segment changes. The troponin levels are normal. What is the best treatment for this patient?
A. Aspirin and sublingual nitroglycerin
B. Aspirin and heparin
C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
D. Observation and reassurance
Answer: D
A 70-year-old male patient with a history of coronary artery disease presents with chest pain that started 30 minutes ago. The pain is described as pressure-like, radiating to the left arm, and associated with diaphoresis and dyspnea. An ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads V1 to V6. The troponin levels are elevated. The patient is not a candidate for urgent cardiac catheterization due to comorbidities. What is the best treatment for this patient?
A. Aspirin and sublingual nitroglycerin
B. Aspirin, heparin, and glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors
C. Thrombolytic therapy
D. Coronary artery bypass grafting
Answer: C
A 58-year-old male presents to the emergency department with chest pain that has been occurring for the past 2 hours. He has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia. An ECG shows ST-segment depression in leads V3-V6. What is the first-line treatment for this patient?
a) Aspirin
b) Nitroglycerin
c) Heparin
d) Clopidogrel
Answer: c) Heparin. The patient is presenting with unstable angina and ECG changes, which indicate that he is at high risk for a myocardial infarction. Heparin is the first-line treatment to prevent further clotting and improve blood flow.
A 65-year-old female presents with chest pain and shortness of breath. She has a history of diabetes, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia. An ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. The patient is given aspirin, nitroglycerin, and heparin. What is the next step in treatment for this patient?
a) Coronary angiography
b) Echocardiography
c) Beta-blocker therapy
d) Calcium channel blocker therapy
Answer: a) Coronary angiography. The patient is presenting with ST-segment elevation, which indicates an acute myocardial infarction. After initial medical management with aspirin, nitroglycerin, and heparin, the patient should undergo urgent coronary angiography to determine the extent and location of the blockage.
A 72-year-old male with a history of coronary artery disease presents with chest pain that has been occurring intermittently for the past 2 weeks. He is currently taking aspirin and a beta-blocker. An ECG shows ST-segment depression in leads V1-V6. What is the next step in management for this patient?
a) Addition of a calcium channel blocker
b) Addition of a nitrate
c) Coronary angiography
d) Conservative medical management
Answer: c) Coronary angiography. The patient is presenting with unstable angina, which requires urgent evaluation for possible coronary artery blockages. Adding additional medications may help alleviate symptoms but does not address the underlying cause of the chest pain. Therefore, coronary angiography is the next step in management for this patient.
Comments
Post a Comment